IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Environment & Ecology

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IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Environment & Ecology

IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Environment & Ecology:  Millions of aspirants appear for the Civil Services Examination every year. IAS is regarded as one of the most competitive Civil Services Examination (CSE) as there are multiple stages for screening candidates (Pre & Mains Written Exam), a next to impossible interview to crack and the process takes almost an entire year. Hence, only the best of the best make it through the final cut. Union Public Services Commission (UPSC) has recently released the notification for the aspirants to apply for upcoming IAS 2017 examination.

All the UPSC IAS aspirants are now preparing for IAS Prelims 2017. The problem is that no matter how good & knowledgeable we think we are or how good we feel we have prepared for the exam there is always a certain level of uncertainty. To overcome this fear, we will be sharing IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Environment & Ecology.

 

IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Environment & Ecology

Ever since, the preliminary examination for Indian Forest Services (IFS) has been clubbed with Civil Services Prelims, the weightage allocated to these topics has considerably increased.

Naturally, it calls for greater attention. IAS Aspirants can no longer afford to overlook these topics. Hence, we have consolidated a concise action plan for upcoming IAS Prelims 2017 Examination for the topics like Ecology, Environment, Biodiversity and Climate Change.

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IAS Prelims exam is scheduled on 18th June, 2017. Over here, we are listing some expected questions on Environment & Ecology topics for IAS Prelims 2017.

Environment and Ecology expected Question IAS Pre 2017 

Q1. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason:

(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought

(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant

(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop

(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio – fuel production

Answer: (b)

Q.2 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans (d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.3 Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?

(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties

(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body

(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids

(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.

Answer: (b)

Q.4 With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

  1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.5 A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is

(a) To make it pest-resistant (b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities

(c) To make it drought-resistant (d) To make its shelf-life longer

Answer: (a)

Q.6 With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

  1. A food chains illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
  2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
  3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.7 “Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

  1. To enable them to withstand drought.
  2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce.
  3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations.
  4. To increase their shelf life.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4″

Answer: (d)

Q.8 With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.9 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.10 Consider the following ecosystems:

  1. Taiga
  2. Tropical evergreen
  3. Tropical deciduous
  4. Tundra

The correct sequence in decreasing order of the albedo values of these ecosystems is

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3 (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.11 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Mangrove)             List II (State)

  1. Achra Ratnagiri               1. Karnataka
  2. Coondapur                      2. Kerala
  3. Pichavaram                    3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Vembanad                      4. Maharashtra
  5. Tamil Nadu

(a) 2 1 5 4

(b) 4 5 3 2

(c) 2 5 3 4

(d) 4 1 5 2

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.12 Open stunted trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in:

(a) Eastern Orissa                    (b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu

(c) Siwaliks and Terai region     (d) Western Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.13 Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?

(a) Temperate Coniferous forests      (b) Temperature Deciduous forests

(c) Tropical Monsoon forests             (d) Tropical Rain forests

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.14. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

  1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
  2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
  3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1and 2 only       (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only                (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.15 As per the Government orders, To which one of the following sites, The lions were transferred recently from Gujarat?

(a) Ranthambore Tigre Reserve

(b) Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Kanha National Park

(d) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

Correct Answer. (d)

Q 16. Consider the following statements:

  1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around40%.
  2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of Indian under tree/ forest cover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only             (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (b)  

Q17 Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?

(a) Sikkim      (b) Goa

(c) Haryana    (d) Kerala

Correct Answer: (c)

Q18. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the-

  1. Decomposer microorganism to the surface.
  2. Nutrients to the surface.
  3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2       (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3       (d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)

Q19. Consider the following organisms:

  1. Agaricus
  2. Nostoc
  3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.20 Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?

(a) Juniper (b) Mahogany

(c) Silver fir (d) Spruce

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.21 India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention?

(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited

(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only

(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of then by future generations.

(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.22 Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

(a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat (d) Home range Ecology

Correct Answer: (b)

Q23. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?

(a) Food crop (b) Rat

(c) Snake (d) Hawk

Correct Answer: (d)

Q24. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of hold and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (2013)

  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Heptachlor
  5. Mercury
  6. Lead
  7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only    (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only        (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Correct Answer: (b)

Q25. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by:

(a) Bacteria (b) protozoa (c) moulds (d) viruses

Correct Answer: (c)

Q26. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

  1. Global warming
  2. Fragmentation of habitat
  3. Invasion of alien species
  4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (d)

Q27. Consider the following statements:

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

  1. In the production of plastic foams.
  2. In the production of tubeless tyres.
  3. In cleaning certain electronic components.
  4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.28 Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

  1. Soil formation
  2. Prevention of soil erosion
  3. Recycling of waste
  4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.29 Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

  1. Species richness
  2. Vegetation density
  3. Endemism
  4. Ethno-botanical importance
  5. Threat perception
  6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

(a) 1 2 and 6 (b) 2, 4 and 6 (c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 6

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.30 Consider the following statements: (2010)

  1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
  2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.31 Consider the following statements: (2010)

  1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
  2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
  3. A drug called “taxol” is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.32 Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?

(a) Biosphere Reserve (b) Botanical Garden (c) National Park (d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Correct Answer: (b)

Q 33 .Consider the following statements:

  1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
  2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.34 In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area? (2010)

(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest (b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest

(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest (d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest

Correct Answer: (c)

Q.35 The approximate representation of land use classification in India is (2010)

(a) Net area sown 25%; forest 33%; other areas 42%

(b) Net area sown 58%; forest 17%; other areas 25%

(c) Net area sown 43%; forest 29%; other areas 28%

(d) Net area sown 47%; forest 23%; other areas 30%

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.36 In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves (b) National Parks

(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.37 Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?

(a) Social justice and empowerment

(b) Inclusive Growth

(c) Globalization

(d) Carrying capacity

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.38 Consider the following regions:

  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Eastern Mediterranean region
  3. North-western Australia

Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.39 Consider the following statements regarding environmental issues of India:

  1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.
  2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan.
  3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal education in environment and conservation.
  4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralized information network for environmental information.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.40 If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because:

(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients

(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability

(c) The rain forest species are slow growing

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.41 The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth

(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones

(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region.

(d) It has less human interference

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.42 ‘Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over’.

Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

(a) Savannah (b) Equatorial

(c) Monsoon (d) Mediterranean

Correct Answer: (b)

Q.43 If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

  1. Oak
  2. Rhododendron
  3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.45 In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of-

(a) insects and fungi (b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

(c) water limits and fire (d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c)

Q46. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Q.47 which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year (b) Rainfall in winter only

(c) An extremely short dry season (d) A definite dry and wet season

Correct Answer: (b)

Q48. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.

(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk.

(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Correct Answer: (a)

Q.49 “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

(a) African Savannah (b) Central Asian Steppe

(c) North American Prairie (d) Siberian Tundra

Correct Answer: (b)

Q50. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

  1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
  2. Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Candidates are advised to go through IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions to prepare efficiently for the upcoming examination. Here we are ending up our article on IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions: Environment & Ecology Most Expected questions. We hope that these questions will help you in all the ways.

Let us know your doubts and queries in the comments section below. Stay connected for more information regarding UPSC Civil Services Exam Recruitment 2017.

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2 COMMENTS

  1. Sir please continue this effort on daily basis it’s helpful in revision make these on daily basis for different subjects and also add previous year questions with new one and from ncert also

  2. Thamk you very much for such kind of support. And why did you not give the explanations in this question set ?

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