UPPCS Prelims 2021 Important Questions on Science & Technology

UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Science & Technology

UPPCS Prelims 2021 Important Questions: Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission, commonly known as UPPCS, is the prime body for conducting the Provincial Civil Service Exam (PCS) every year. The UPPCS has released the revised exam calendar for the year 2021-2022. The UPPCS PCS Prelims will be held on 24 October 2021, and the mains exam is scheduled for 28 January 2022. 

The exam is conducted annually to recruit candidates for multiple posts in Uttar Pradesh State government ministries and departments. Candidates from all over the state compete in the exam to be a part of the lucrative state administrative services. This year the UPPCS has rolled out 416 vacancies for various posts. 

Most candidates have already started preparing for the preliminary examination, and here is our take on UPPCS Prelims 2021 Important Questions on science & technology. To further assist in preparing UPPCS 2021, we have curated some vital questions on Science and Technology to help students secure higher marks. Check out the questions below.

UPPCS PCS 2021 Vacancy

Check out the post wise UPPCS PCS 2021 vacancies below.

UPPSC PCS 2021 Post Vacancies
PCS (Combined State/Upper Subordinate Services) 400
Assistant Conservator of Forest (A.C.F.) 01
Range Forest Officer (R.F.O.)  15
Total 416

UPPCS PCS 2021: Exam Highlights

Events Important Dates
UPPSC PCS 2021 Registration Begins February 5, 2021
Last Date to Submit Online Application March 5, 2021
UPPSC PCS 2021 Admit Card 10 days before the exam
UPPSC PCS 2021 Prelims Exam October 24, 2021
UPPSC PCS Mains Exam January 28, 2022

UPPCS Prelims 2021 Important Questions on Science & Technology

Important Science & Tech Questions of UPPCS

Q.1 which one of the following is not correct about boiling and evaporation?

(a) Boiling point decreases if external pressure is low, but evaporation increases if external pressure is low.

(b) Boiling can take place in closed and open vessels, whereas evaporation takes place only in an open vessel.

(c) Evaporation takes place only from the surface, whereas boiling involves the formation of bubbles below the surface.

(d) Evaporation occurs at all temperatures, whereas boiling occurs only at one particular temperature.

Ans. (b) 

Explanation: Evaporation takes place in a closed vessel also.

Q.2. The water pollutants mainly responsible for eutrophication are

(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls.

(b) Detergents and fertilisers containing phosphate anion.

(c) Heavy metals present in mining waste.

(d) Cd, Pb and Hg present in industrial waste.

Ans. b

Explanation: Eutrophication involves an increase in the concentration of phosphate ions on the surface of the water.

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Q.3. What do we call a network whose elements may be separated by some distance? It usually involves two or more small networks and dedicated high-speed telephone lines.

(a) World Wide Web

(b) WAN (Wide Area Network)

(c) LAN (Local Area Network)

(d) URL (Universal Resource Locator)

Ans.  (b)

Explanation: LAN is based on peer to peer communication where each node is connected to the node and can share the data and other applications with each other. Internet helps in the interconnection of different types of LANs.

Q.4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the solid propellant rocket?

(a) They are heavier than the liquid propellant.

(b) They can be used in missiles with longer range.

(c) They produce greater thrust than the liquid propellant.

(d) They burn faster than liquid propellants.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Solid propellants cannot be used in missiles with longer range as the solid propellants are heavy and not as light as liquid propellants used for long transportation.

Q.5. The function of oxidiser used in rocket propellants is to:

(a) Give power to the rocket.

(b) Supply air for fast burning.

(c) Supply oxygen for the burning of fuel.

(d) Provide the basic burning substances.

Ans. c

Explanation:  The fuel burns and the oxidiser provide oxygen for the burning of fuel. In most liquid propellants, UDMH, ultra dimethyl 1 hydrazine is used as fuel and nitric acid as an oxidiser.

Q.6. Which of the following is not one of the impacts of ‘Aerosols’?

(a) Greater concentration of haze reflects sunlight and consequently has a cooling effect.

(b) Tiny haze particles do not act as condensation nuclei and hence lower the rainfall amount.

(c) High content of the haze makes it highly absorbent of sunlight.

(d) It disturbs the self-cleaning efficiency of the atmosphere.

Ans. c

Explanation: Haze does not absorb sunlight. It reflects sunlight and consequently has a cooling effect. The haze particles may be very small; consequently, they even do not form good hygroscopic nuclei as well.

Q.7. The BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) increased when:

(a) Dead vegetation settles at the bottom.

(b) There is a reduction in the penetration of Sunlight.

(c) Development of zones without oxygen.

(d) Algal bloom takes place.

Ans. d

Explanation: When algal bloom takes place, then in due process, the algae die as well. The decay of algae and its decomposition eats up the water’s oxygen, causing the oxygen content to be lowered. A decreased oxygen content cause the BOD for other organismsoxidiserigh as well as for the waterbody.

Q.8. From the statements provided below, choose the one which is incorrect regarding edible vaccines.

(a) Recombinant DNA technology is used for producing edible vaccines.

(b) Potato is an excellent source of vaccine production against cholera.

(c) They can be used for harvesting immunoglobulins and interferons.

(d) Plants are being used as an alternative vaccine production system.

Ans. a

Explanation: Molecular farming is the process through which edible vaccines are produced.

Q.9 Consider the statements provided below and mark the correct option.

  1. DNA fingerprinting uses southern blotting technology to identify the base pair sequences.

  2. It is also known as footprinting.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. a

Explanation: Footprinting is different from DNA fingerprinting. It identifies different characteristics with the help of protein structure analysis.

Q.10 Following interesting facts on rhinoceros are true, but one-

(a) Asian rhino can be sold for more than twice its weight in gold.

(b) Their blood, urine and dung also fetch money.

(c) They have excellent eyesight.

(d) They are excellent swimmers.

Ans. c

Explanation: Rhinoceros have excellent hearing and smell but poor eyesight.

Q.11. Consider the following statements:

  1. Mercury and Venus have no satellites.

  2. Deimos is the satellite of Mars.

  3. Phobes is the satellite of Jupiter.

Which of the provided options is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. b

Explanation: Both Deimos and Phobos are the satellites of Mars.

Q. 12. It is dangerous to leave the car engine running in a closed garage, because it may cause serious pollution by emission of

(a) SO2

(b) CO2

(c) CO

(d) unburnt petrol

Ans. c)

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Q.13. Diamond is hard because

(a) It cannot be burnt.

(b) It is made up of carbon atoms.

(c) It is a giant molecule.

(d) All the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atom by covalent bonds.

Ans. d

Explanation: In diamond, each carbon atom is in an sp3-hybridized state and linked to four other carbon atoms tetrahedrally by strong covalent bonds. So diamond is a hard substance.

Q.14. The vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(a) The amount of the liquid taken.

(b) The temperature of the liquid.

(c) Both on the amount as well as temperature.

(d) Neither the amount nor the temperature but only on the nature of the liquid.

Ans. b

Explanation: The vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon the temperature of the liquid.

Q.15. One finds it more challenging to walk on ice than on a concrete road because

(a) There is more friction on ice than on concrete

(b) Ice is soft and spongy, whereas concrete is hard

(c) The friction between the ice and the feet is less than that between the concrete and the feet

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

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Explanation: Ihe foot’s pressure on ice causes a very thin layer to melt, the resulting water acts as a lubricant. If it were cold enough (or the pressure was not significant enough), no water would be present, and the ice would not be slippery.

Q.16. When water and honey be dropped individually, water comes out earlier because

(a) Viscosity of honey is less than water

(b) Viscosity of water is much higher than honey

(c) Viscosity of honey is much higher than water

(d) None of these.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: Viscosity measures the resistance of a fluid that is being deformed by either shear or tensile stress.

Q.17. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colours. The phenomenon occurs due to

(a) Polarization

(b) Diffraction

(c) Dispersion

(d) Interference

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Thin-film interference is the phenomenon that occurs when incident light waves reflected by the upper and lower boundaries of a thin film interfere with one another to form a new wave.

Q.18. A steel ball floats on mercury because:

(a) A steel ball can be made to float on any liquid by suitable adjustment.

(b) The density of mercury is higher than that of steel.

(c) Mercury is also metal in liquid form.

(d) Mercury does not allow any metallic ball to sink in it.

Ans. b

Explanation: The density of steel is about 7.9 g/cm3, and the density of mercury is 13.5 g/cm3. Therefore the buoyancy force is greater, causing the steel ball to float.

Q.19. A hot and a cold body are kept in a vacuum separated from each other. Which of the following cause decrease in temperature of the hot body?

(a) Temperature remains unchanged.

(b) Conduction

(c) Convection

(d) Radiation

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Radiation takes place in a vacuum, convection takes place in liquids, while conduction occurs in solids.

Q.20. Consider these statements regarding stars:

  1. The Sun is the star in the milky way galaxy.

  2. Stars never die.

  3. Stars are heavenly bodies that are extremely hot and have their own light.

  4. Stars are made up of clouds of Hydrogen gas, Helium and dust.

Choose the correct codes:

(a) Only 1

(b) both 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) All of them.

Ans. d

Explanations: Stars take birth and die in three different ways-White dwarf, Black dwarf, Neutron star as Black Hole.

Q.21. The approach to management to solar energy in India includes:

(a) Solar pond

(b) Parabolic trough collector Technology

(c) Solar photovoltaic cells

(d) All the above.

Ans. d

Explanation: Solar photovoltaic cells are silicon cells that convert solar energy falling on them in the form of electricity.

Q.22. The first workable definition of sustainable development was provided by

(a) Willy Brandt Commission

(b) The Brundtland Commission

(c) The Brundtland Report

(d) None of these.

Ans. b

Explanation: The first workable definition of sustainable was provided by the Brundtland Commission, World Commission.

Q.23. “Biodiversity” is described as

(a) The influence of different geological factors in an environment.

(b) The way species differ from one another

(c) The range of different species in an environment

(d) The seasonal and daily changes in an environment

Ans. c

Explanation: Biodiversity is the totality of all the species, ecosystem and genetic diversity.

Q.24. Human consumption is sustainable if:

(a) One does not bother about the ecological footprint.

(b) The ecological footprints are uniformly equal in all parts of the world.

(c) The ecological footprints are greater than the earth’s geographical area.

(d) The ecological footprints are smaller than the earth’s geographical area.

Ans. d

Explanation: If the ecological footprints are greater than the earth’s geographical area, human consumption is not sustainable.

Q.25. Insectivorous plants are usually found in the

(a) Sodium deficient soil

(b) Carbon deficient soil

(c) Sulphur deficient soil

(d) Nitrogen-deficient soil

Ans. (d)

Explanation:  Insectivorous plants such as the Pitcher plants, Venus flytrap compensate for the nitrogen deficiency in their soil by consuming the insects.

Q.26. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of a liquid decreases. This is because of

(a) Decrease in convalent and hydrogen bond forces.

(b) Decreased volume of the solution.

(c) Increase in the temperature that increases the average kinetic energy of molecules which overcome the attractive force between them.

(d) Increased attraction between the molecules.

Ans. c

Explanation: With an increase in temperature, a liquid’s viscosity decreases as the molecules’ average kinetic energy increases.

Q.27.The graphite rods in the nuclear reactor

(a) Convert fast-moving neutrons into thermal neutrons

(b) Undergo combustion, which triggers the nuclear fission

(c) React with U to release energy

(d) Produce neutrons

Ans. (a)

Explanation: Thermal neutrons are slow neutrons that are approximately in thermal equilibrium with a moderator. They have a distribution of speed similar to that of the molecules of a gas at the temperature of the moderator.

Q.28. Which of the following are true statement(s)?

  1. Silica causes lung disease called white lung cancer.

  2. The lung disease caused by asbestos particulates is called asbestosis.

  3. Coal miners suffer from black lung disease.

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. c

Explanation: Silica causes silicosis.

Q.29. A gas is liquefied

(a) Above critical temperature and pressure

(b) Above critical temperature and below critical pressure.

(c) Below critical temperature and above the critical pressure.

(d) Below critical temperature and pressure.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: A gas is liquefied only if the temperature. The minimum pressure required to liquefy the gas at the critical temperature is called the critical pressure.

Q.30. The unused fat present in the body is

(a) Easily destroyed by certain enzymes present in the body.

(b) Convert into carbohydrates

(c) Removed as waste from the body

(d) Reconverted into animal fat and stored in different parts of the body

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Reserved fat acts as thermo-insulator

Q.31. The most commonly used chemical for stain removal is

(a) Mineral water

(b) Salted water

(c) Javelle water

(d) Citric acid

Ans. c

Explanation: Javelle water also Javel water is an aqueous solution of potassium or sodium hypochlorite, used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent.

Q.32. In an electrochemical cell, the electrons flow from

(a) solution to the cathode.

(b) anode to the solution.

(c) anode to cathode.

(d) cathode to anode.

Ans. (d)

Explanation: The electrons liberated at the anode during oxidation move toward the cathode, where they are used up.

Q.33. When milk is churned, the cream from it gets separated due to

(a) Heat

(b) Frictional force

(c) Gravitational force

(d) Centrifugal force

Ans. d

Explanation: An object travelling in a circle behaves as if it is experiencing an outward force. This force is known as centrifugal force. The force of spin causes the cream to get separated from the milk.

Q.34. When was Catheters first used?

(a) Fourth century BC

(b) Third century BC

(c) Second century BC

(d) First century BC

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Catheters, one of the oldest devices in medicine, are hollow tubes made of plastic or rubber used to either deliver or remove fluids to or from the body. They were first used by the Greek physician Erastratus.

Q.35. Who among the following scientists first established that the Pancreas was involved in digesting fat and that the liver produced sugar?

(a) Claude Bernard

(b) Dr. John Snow

(c) Louis Pasteur

(d) Rudolf Virchow

Ans. (a)

Explanation: In 1857, he established this. Claude Bernard, a French physiologist who is considered a pioneer of modern experimental physiology, became one of the most distinguished and honoured scientists in the history of France; one of the universities in Paris has been named after him.

Q.36. Who among the following first suggested that ‘infected drinking water is the leading cause of Cholera?

(a) William Harvey

(b) Edward Jenner

(c) Antoine Lavoisier

(d) Dr. John Snow

Ans. d

Explanation: He suggested it first in 1849; after many years of research, he proved it correct. Before his suggestion, doctors used to think that Cholera was caused by something harmful in the air.

Q.37. Who among the following established the first hospital trains bringing medical facilities to the war fronts?

(a) Rudolf Virchow

(b) Louis Pasteur

(c) William Harvey

(d) Dr John Snow

Ans.  a

Explanation: He was a German pathologist, archaeologist, anthropologist and the founder of cellular pathology; he identified the abnormal cells that cause leukaemia and described the disease as a rapid enhancement of white blood cells in the body.

Q.38. A healthy person’s temperature is usually around

(a) 97 degree Fahrenheit

(b) 97.8 degree Fahrenheit

(c) 98.4 degree Fahrenheit

(d) 99 degree Fahrenheit

Ans. c

Explanation: It was a German physician, Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit, who in 1714 invented the mercury thermometer. In 1724 he introduced the temperature scale that bears his name Fahrenheit Scale.

Q.39. Who among the following was the first person to understand the process of respiration?

(a) Edward Jenner

(b) Dr. John Snow

(c) Samuel Hahnemann

(d) Antoine Lavoisier

Ans.  d

Explanation: He was a French chemist. He proved that we breathe in more oxygen when we are active and less when we are relaxing.

Q.40. Who among the following discovered the smallpox vaccine?

(a) Edward Jenner

(b) Hahnemann

(c) Dr. John Snow

(d) Marshall Hall

Ans. a

Explanation: He published his paper on his discovery of the vaccine for smallpox in 1748. This discovery was a great leap forward in medicine; smallpox was wiped out from the entire world by 1975. This vaccine was made from a cowpox sore, a contagious disease similar to smallpox found in animals.

Q.41. Who among the following accurately described how blood was pumped around the body by the heart?

(a) Dr John Snow

(b) William Harvey

(c) Marshall Hall

(d) Andreas Vesalius

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Harvey, an English physician, in 1628, explained how blood was pumped from the heart throughout the body, then returned to the heart and recirculated. His work became the basis for all modern research on heart and blood vessels.

Q.42. Who among the following discovered X-rays?

(a) William Rongton

(b) Robert Koch

(c) William Halstead

(d) Ronald Ross

Ans. (a)

Explanation: He discovered these rays in 1895 by accident. However, this discovery transformed medicine. A doctor could now se human beings’ bones without cutting open the body; he could now see what was actually with our bones or other organs and make a more accurate diagnosis.

Q.43. Who among the following first discovered the cause of malaria?

(a) Robert Koch

(b) Roland Ross

(c) William Halstead

(d) Mary Mallon

Ans. b

Explanation: He was a British physician who won the Nobel Prize in 1902 for discovering that malaria was not caused by the air but by parasites passed into the blood by mosquitoes.

Q.44. In which of the following year TB was declared a global emergency?

(a) 1991

(b) 1992

(c) 1993

(d) 1994

Ans. c

Explanation: It was declared a global emergency by WTO.

Q.45. The symptoms of active TB is/are

(a) Coughing up blood

(b) Persistent cough (3 weeks or longer)

(c) weight loss

(d) All of them

Ans. d

Explanation: TB spreads through the air

Q.46. Which of the following is used to make self-luminous paint?

(a) Protium

(b) Deuterium

(c) Tritium

(d) None

Ans. c

Explanation: It is an isotope of hydrogen

Q.47. Who among the following discovered the third-largest moon of Neptune?

(a) Johannes Kepler

(b) Ronald Ross

(c) Gerard Kuiper

(d) Richard Byrd

Ans. c

Explanation: It was discovered on 1 May 1949; its name is Nereid.

Q.48. About what percentage of the world’s ice Antarctica has?

(a) 50%

(b) 100%

(c) 40%

(d) 90%

Ans. d

Explanation: 90% of Antarctica is a thick ice sheet.

Q.49. Liquid water is denser than ice due to

a) Hydrogen bonding

(b) Covalent bonding

(c) Higher Surface Tension

(d) Vander Waals force

Ans. a

Explanation: The usual valence of Hydrogen is +1 or sometimes -1.

Q.50. Which of the following is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?

(a) Heavy water

(b) Soft water

(c) Chlorine

(d) Hydrogen gas

Ans. a

Explanation: Heavy water is D2O.

The questions discussed in the article will surely help students to secure higher marks in the UPPCS Prelims 2021. Stay tuned to this section to get more updates on the exam and tips and preparation strategies to get higher marks. 

Let us know about your queries regarding the UPPCS 2021 in the comments section. Stay connected for more information regarding UPPCS 2021. To excel in Teaching Exams, download the Best Teaching Exam Preparation App for free.

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