UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions for Indian Polity (Expected)

0
3394
UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions for Indian Polity (Expected)

 

UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions for Indian Polity: The most competitive civil services recruitment paper, UPSC IAS Civil Services Exam is just a few months away. It is regarded as one of the most challenging papers of the country. Millions of aspirants appear for the Civil Services Examination every year. As of now, IAS Prelims 2017 is scheduled on 18th June, 2017.

Most candidates have already started preparing for the preliminary examination and here is our take on UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity. To facilitate your exam preparation for UPSC IAS Recruitment, here are some of the most essential questions from Indian Polity section.

 

UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity (Expected)

Here’s a list of important questions from Indian Polity which can be expected in the actual paper that can help UPSC IAS aspirants to score more in the Prelims:

Q.1. Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary privileges available to the members:

  1. They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament for both civil and criminal offences.

  2. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said in Parliament.

  3. The presiding officer of the house has the final authority in deciding matters of breach of privileges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.

Statement 2 is correct: No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees.

Statement 3 is correct: The presiding officer of the legislature has the final powers in deciding matters of breach of privilege. Thus Lok Sabha speaker has the final powers in deciding matters of breach of privilege by a member of Lok Sabha. The same function is performed by the chairman of the Rajya Sabha for its members.

Preparing for IAS?? Here are our recommended study material

There are thousands of books which are available for IAS Exam Preparation but most of them are not accurate or lack the necessary content required for cracking such a competitive examination. Below mentioned are some of our best recommended books.

IAS Study Material for Exam Preparation

Suggested by elite exam experts, these books will definitely help in improving your knowledge on various for IAS Prelims 2017 Exam Preparation.

CSAT General Studies Paper 1 (IAS Prelims) 101 Speed Tests Practice Workbook with 10 Practice Sets

CSAT General Studies Paper 1 (IAS Prelims) 101 Speed Tests Practice Workbook with 10 Practice Sets by Disha Publications

The thoroughly revised and updated 2nd edition of the 1st and the Most Innovative Book for the CSAT exam. Since things are well structured and executed. It gives you a
proper channel for preparing and guiding you to do things as per these 101 TESTS.
It contains questions on the MOST IMPORTANT ISSUES which are required to crack the CSAT exam. The questions are covered in the form of 101 SPEED TESTS.

Buy Now ( Rs.420 197)

Indian Art and Culture

Indian art & culture by MC Graw Hill Publication

The author has provided a wide ranged knowledge base on Indian art, paintings, music and architecture with the help of several pictures and diagrams which he believes, will help arouse the reader’s interest.

Buy Now ( Rs. 445 309)

Giving the opportunity for candidates to practice mock test series before they take the real thing has a huge benefit on their scores. Below mentioned are some of our best recommended mock test series. Click on the link below to explore.

IAS Best Books for Exam Preparation

Go through our below recommended books and ace in exams:

M Laxmikant Indian Polity 5th Edition

M Laxmikant Indian Polity 5th Edition by MC Graw Hill Publications

OnlineTyari has came up with Indian Polity Test Series for your thorough practice in the exam season. We will deliver this book directly to your door steps.

Click here to explore

Indian Economy

Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh

Indian Economy is a comprehensive text, with detailed coverage of all topics in the UPSC Preliminary and Main syllabus. Written by a subject expert who has several books
on economics, contemporary essays etc. to his credit, the book is of immense importance to academics, researchers, aspirants of civil services examinations and those with
an abiding passion for the subject

Click here to explore

Q.2. With reference to the executive powers and functions of the union, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Unlike legislative powers, the distribution of executive powers between the centre and states is rigid.

  2. If a state fails to comply with executive directions given by the centre then the legislative assembly of the state can be dissolved.

  3. The delegation of the executive functions of the centre to a state compulsorily requires the consent of that state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The distribution of legislative powers between the centre and states is rigid as article 246 provides three lists where as there is no as such rigidity in the division of executive power between the centre and states. For example, the President with the consent of the state government may entrust any of the executive functions to that state. Similarly the Governor of a state with the consent of the central government may entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state.

Statement 2 is correct: If the state fails to comply with the executive direction of the centre then the

President rule can be imposed as per article 356. So the state legislative assembly can be dissolved.

Statement 3 is not correct: It can be done even without the consent of the state. The Parliament can make a law on the union list and can confer the executive powers on the states.

Q.3. The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the

  1. Legislative Council

  2. Rajya Sabha

  3. Office of Vice President

  4. Office of Speaker

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans.  c

Explanation: The election commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, Office of President and Office of Vice President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.

Q.4. _________ is the key to open the mind of the makers.:

  1. Writs

  2. Preamble

  3. Fundamental Duties

  4. Fundamental Rights

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Ans.  b

Q.5. Who among the following can vote in the election of the President?

  1. Elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha.

  2. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha.

  3. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of UTs

  4. Elected members of Legislative Councils

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. b

Explanation: The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of Electoral College consisting of:

  • the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
  • the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states;
  • and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but take part in impeachment process of the President.

Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part in election but do not take part in impeachment proceedings

Q.6. Consider the following statements with regard to special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370:

  1. The Parliament cannot make laws on subjects not mentioned in instrument of accession signed in 1947.

  2. The President can repeal Article 370 only on the recommendation of State government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.  d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 370 mentions that Parliament can make laws on those matters in the Union list and concurrent list that correspond with the matters mentioned in the instruments of Accession. However, Parliament can make laws on other matters of union list and concurrent list specified by the President only with the concurrence of State government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 370 can be repealed by the President only on the recommendation of the Constituent assembly of the State and NOT the State Government.

Q.7. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court covers which of the following matters?

  1. Interstate Water Dispute.

  2. Disputes arising out of any preconstitutional treaty.

  3. Enforcement of Fundamental rights.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation: As a federal court SC has original jurisdiction over federal disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Other than this, it has no original jurisdiction over matters like inter-state water disputes, ordinary dispute of commercial nature between centre and states, dispute arising out of preconstitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, recovery of damages by a state against the centre and state. Therefore, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warrento and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.

Q.8. Which of the following represents federal features of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Written Constitution

  2. Integrated Judiciary

  3. Indestructible states of Union

  4. Existence of union and state governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Ans. d

Explanation: The federal features of the Constitution of India are:

  1. Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.
  1. Written Constitution: It specifies the structure, orga-nisation, powers and functions of both the

Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate.

  1. Division of Powers: The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule.
  1. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the

government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.

  1. Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
  1. Bicameralism: The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Centre.
  • Integrated Judiciary is a unitary feature of the Constitution of India.
  • States in India are not indestructible. Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority.

Q.9. Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Prime minister?

  1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

  2. Resignation of Prime minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers

  3. Constitution has provided procedure for selection and appointment of Prime minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime

Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary Convention that leader of the majority party is appointed as Prime minister

Q.10. Consider the following statements regarding board of co-operative society:

  1. It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women.

  2. The elected members of the board is five years.

  3. Elections for the board members are administered by state election commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of elected members of the board and its office bearers is five years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the board members are administered by the body authorized by the state legislature.

Q.11 The provision of joint sitting is applicable for which of the following bills?

  1. Ordinary bills

  2. Financial bills

  3. Constitutional Amendment bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanations: President summons the joint sitting to resolve the deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. Provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bill or Constitutional amendment bills.

Q.12 The executive branch of government consist of which of the following?

  1. President

  2. Council of Ministers

  3. Members of Parliament

  4. Civil Servants

  5. Attorney General

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans. d

Explanations:

  • The executive branch includes presidents, prime ministers, Council of Ministers, Attorney General and the administrative machinery (civil servants). While the heads of government and their ministers are together known as the political executive, civil servants are called the permanent executive.
  • Members of Parliaments are part of legislative. Only those MPs, which are ministers form part of Executive.

Q.13  Consider the following statements:

  1. There is single citizenship in India.

  2. President enjoys absolute veto over state bills.

  3. The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a state without its content.

  4. Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian constitution more federal in nature?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. C

Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the unitary features of Indian constitution and hence removing them would make Indian constitution more federal. Supremacy of the constitution is a federal feature. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.

 

Q.14 Which of the following is/are the discretionary powers of President?

  1. Exercise of suspensive veto power

  2. Appointment of Prime Minister when no Political Party has majority in Lok Sabha

  3. Appointment of Governor in a state

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

Explanations: Statement 1 is correct. The President has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill. So, in case of ordinary bill, President has a discretionary power.

Statement 2 is correct. The President has discretion to appoint Prime Minister in such cases. Other ministers are appointed on the advice of PM.

Statement 3 is incorrect. It is not a discretionary power of the President. The Governor in a state is appointed by the President on the advice of central government.

Q.15.  Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Vice-President of India?

  1. He is member and chairman of Council of States.

  2. He can resign by addressing resignation letter to deputy chairman of Council of States.

  3. He can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Vice President is ex-officio chairman of Council of States but he is not member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect: He can resign by addressing to the President of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: He is not impeached by a formal impeachment process like President .He can be removed from office by a resolution of Rajya Sabha with absolute majority and agreed by Lok Sabha.

Q16. Which of the following are the exclusive powers of Lok Sabha?

  1. Vote of demand for grants

  2. Proclamation of National Emergency

  3. Revocation of National Emergency

  4. Introduction of Constitution Amendment bill

  5. Creation of All India Services

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans. a

Explanations:

  • Option 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
  • Option 2 is incorrect. Proclamation of National Emergency has to be approved by both the houses of parliament.
  • Option 3 is correct. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
  • Option 4 is incorrect. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
  • Option 5 is incorrect. It is the Rajya Sabha which can authorize the Parliament to create new All-India
  • Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312).

Q.17 Which of the following is not correct when Vice-President is discharging functions of President?

(a) He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for his official acts.

(b) He continues to perform the duties of chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(c) He can pardon the sentence of a court martial.

(d) He can promulgate ordinances on the advice of Council of Ministers.

 

Ans. b

Explanation: When Vice -President is acting as President, he enjoys all the powers and Privileges of the President. Option (a),(c),(d) are powers and privileges of the President. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice-President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Q.18 Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his individual discretion in appointing Chief Minister?

  1. When no political party has clear majority.

  2. When the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. When no party has a clear majority in the legislative assembly, then governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of CM. In such a situation the governor usually appoints, the leader of largest party or largest coalition party, as the CM and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the house within a month.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The governor may exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointment of CM when CM in the office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a CM, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and governor appoints him/her as CM.

Q.19 Which of the following Constitutional provisions is/are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. Part III

  2. Part IV

  3. Part IV A

  4. Fifth Schedule

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Option 1 is incorrect. Part III (dealing with Fundamental Rights) is applicable to the state with some exceptions and conditions. The Fundamental Right to Property is still guaranteed in the state. Also, certain special rights are granted to the permanent residents of the state with regard to public employment, acquisition of immovable property, settlement and government scholarships.
  • Options 2 and 3 are correct. Part IV (dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy) and Part IVA (dealing with Fundamental Duties) are not applicable to the state.
  • Option 4 is correct. The Fifth Schedule (dealing with administration and control of schedule areas and scheduled tribes) and the Sixth Schedule (dealing with administration of tribal areas) do not apply to the state.

Q.20. Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to:

(a) Education

(b) Vote

(c) Speech

(d) Freedom

Ans. b

Explanations: Article 326 : Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of Adult Suffrage.

Adult Suffrage is the right to vote given to every adult citizens of India, who is above 18 years of age, with the vision of maximum participation and providing an opportunity to the youth to select their leaders.

Q.21. Consider the following provisions of the Tenth Schedule

  1. An independent member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins any political party.

  2. A member of a political party cannot abstain from voting in the house, contrary to the direction of the party, under any circumstance.

  3. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he/she joins party before the expiry of 6 months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanations:

  • Statement 1 is Correct. An Independent member of a house becomes disqualified to remain a member of the house is he/she joins any political party after such election.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect. A member belonging to any political party becomes disqualified if he/she votes or abstains from voting contrary to the direction of the party. However a member shall not be disqualified if he/she has obtained prior permission of the party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. A nominated member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he/she takes his/her seat in the house. That means a nominated member becomes is not disqualified if he/she joins party before the expiry of 6 months.

 

Q.22. With reference to official language of a state, consider the following statements:

  1. It should be spoken by the majority of the population of the state.

  2. It should be listed in 8th schedule of the constitution.

  3. It is adopted on the direction of the Governor with the prior consent of the president of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement is incorrect: Though it is being observed that official language of a particular state is spoken by a large section of the population but it is not the soul criteria to make a language as an official language. The official language is used in the official and administrative works in the state for the effective functioning of the government. Even the President, for protecting the linguistic interests of the minorities in the states, can direct to states to recognize any language as a official language.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: State legislature of a state has given exclusive power to adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Authorisation of the governor is not required here.

Q.23. Which of the following is/are correct regarding impeachment of the President?

  1. He can be impeached only on the charge of violation of Constitution.

  2. Only elected members of Parliament can vote at impeachment proceedings.

  3. On removal of President, Vice-President takes charge as president for the remaining tenure.

  4. Impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in both the houses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 56(1)(b) states that President may , for violation of the constitution, be removed from office by impeachement. However Constitution does not give description of what amounts to violation of constitution
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is elected.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office.

Q.24. Consider the following statements:

  1. In Presidential system, the President is accountable to the legislature.

  2. In Parliamentary system, the head of the state may be monarch.

  3. In Presidential system, the President is the head of government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. In the Presidential System, the President is not accountable to legislature.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Canada has a parliamentary democracy with a constitutional monarchy where Queen Elizabeth II is the formal chief of state and the prime minister is the head of government.
  • Statement 3 is correct. In the Presidential System, the President is head of the state as well as the head of the government.

Q.25. Consider the following statement, regarding Lok Sabha:

  1. Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years, after which it automatically dissolves.

  2. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is subject to judicial review.

  3. During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any number of times.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha has normal term of five years after which it dissolves automatically.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision to dissolve Lok sabha by the president cannot be challenged in a court of law.
  • Statement 3 is correct: During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any length of time. However the extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

Q.26. Consider the following statements with reference to presiding officers in Parliament:

  1. In case of vacancy in the office of speaker and deputy speaker, Lok Sabha may elect any member as acting speaker.

  2. In the instance when resolution of their removal is in consideration, both speaker and the chairman can vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the president, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of parliament as acting speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house.

Statement 2 is incorrect as well. While Speaker can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can only be present and speak in the house without voting.

Q.27. Consider the following statements with regard to co-operatives:

  1. To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19.

  2. Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies.

  3. Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution.

Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC) judges:

  1. A distinguished jurist in the eye Chief Justice of India can be appointed as a judge of HC.

  2. A judge of HC can be removed by the Governor after an address by the state legislature has been presented to him.

  3. Grounds for removal of HC judges are to be determined by the respective state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Ans. d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no provision of appointing distinguished jurist as a judge of HC (this provision is there for appointing judge of SC only).

Statement 2 is incorrect. State legislature has no powers with respect to removal of the judge of HC. He can be removed by the President after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session.

Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution. There are only two grounds for removal of HC/SC judges-proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Q.29 The parliament can make laws on State list if:

  1. There is constitutional breakdown of state machinery

  2. The Chief Ministers of two or more states request the parliament

  3. Parliament passes a motion for the same with special majority

  4. It is for implementing international treaties

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans. a

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: If President rule is being invoked in the state then the Parliament can make laws on matters mentioned in the state list and the state legislative assembly is suspended.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is the state legislatures which make the request not the Chief Ministers.

Statement 3 is not correct: It is not the Parliament rather the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) which can pass a resolution with a special majority of not less than two thirds of members present and voting, if it is necessary in national interest that parliament should make laws on any matter mentioned in the State List.

Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments.

Q.30 With reference to doctrine of pleasure, consider the following statements:

  1. It is only applicable to persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services not to the members of State services.

  2. It is used to remove Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Chief Election Commissioner from their office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly the personnel of the state services hold office during the pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state services also.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by the parliament with special majority.

Q.31. The preamble of Indian constitution includes:

  1. Equality
  2. Fraternity
  3. Liberty
  4. Justice

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of The Above

Ans. d

Explanation:

Preamble of Indian Constitution states:

WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, social, economic and political;

LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation

Q32. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Departmental Standing Committees?

  1. The members of this committee are elected by proportional representation.

  2. It considers the demands for grants of concerned ministries and can suggest cuts in the budget.

  3. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and hence not binding on the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct as the members of the Departmental Standing Committees are nominated by the Speaker/chairman from amongst the members of the concerned House. Each committee has 31 members ( 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha )

Statement 2 is not correct as the Committees cannot make any suggestions of a nature of cuts in their reports.

Statement 3 is correct. The recommendations of Departmental Standing Committees are advisory in nature and are not binding on the parliament.

Q.33. Consider the following statements with regard to disqualification under Anti defection law:

  1. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer.

  2. This decision is final and cannot be subjected to judicial review.

  3. While taking such a decision, the decision-taking authority function as a tribunal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the house.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, the Supreme Court declared this provision as Unconstitutional. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the 10th Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence his/her decision like that of any other tribunals, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala-fides, perversity etc.

Statement 3 is Correct. The presiding officer functions as a tribunal while taking such decisions.

Q.34. Consider the following statements with regard to Inter State Water Disputes:

  1. Article 262 provides that Parliament alone can make laws on Inter-state water disputes.

  2. Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of Supreme Court in these matters.

  3. The decision of an Inter-State Water dispute Tribunal is final and binding on the parties involved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 262, Parliament alone has the authority to make laws on

Inter-state water disputes.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 262 also allows the Parliament to restrict Supreme Court and other courts from interfering in these disputes.

Statement 3 is correct. Under Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, Parliament can establish an ad-hoc tribunal for a river water dispute. The decision of the tribunal is binding and final on the parties. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court has any jurisdiction in these matters.

Q.35. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Committee on Public undertakings?

  1. The members are elected every year from both the houses of the parliament.

  2. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.

  3. The chairman of this Committee can be only from Lok sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct as the members are elected every year for a term of 1 year. The elections are done through proportional representation using a single transferable vote.
  • Statement 2 is correct. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only.

Q.36. In the context of special status given to Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

  1. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted by the Constituent Assembly of India.

  2. Article 370 provides permanent special status to the state.

  3. The right to property is still a fundamental right in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first time on October 31, 1951.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – Article 370 deals with the special provision with the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not permanent.
  • Statement 3 is correct – fundamental right to property is still granted to in this state.

Q.37. Consider the following statements with regard to powers and functions Inter-State Council:

  1. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are not binding.

  2. Its function is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction to decide a legal controversy between the governments.

  3. All the questions discussed are decided by consensus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Inter-state council’s function to enquire and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or nonlegal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision.
  • Statement 3 is also correct. All the matters are settled by consensus.

Q.38. Consider the following statements:

  1. Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.

  2. No confidence motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister.

  3. Censure motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister.

Q.39. The fundamental objective of the residuary power of the Indian Parliament is to ensure which among the following?

  1. Uniformity of legislation nationwide

  2. Supremacy of the Parliament over state legislatures

  3. Formulation of laws on any matters not mentioned in State List and Concurrent List.

  4. The Parliamentary system of government in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is not correct: For uniformity of legislation nationwide parliament make laws on matter present in Union list and concurrent list.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: This is not the main objective as the constitution provides clear cut distribution of legislative powers between the centre and the states.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Article 248 says that the parliament has exclusive power to make laws on matters not present in union list, State list and Concurrent list.
  • Statement 4 is not correct: There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha. It has nothing to do with residuary power of the Parliament.

Q,40. What are the benefits received by the political parties recognised by the Election Commission?

  1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols.

  2. Access to electoral rolls.

  3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio stations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation: Benefits received by recognised political parties include:

  1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the country. Similarly, every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the state or states in which it is so recognised.
  2. Access to electoral rolls.
  3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio-stations.

Q.41.Consider the following statements:

  1. Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants.

  2. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but cannot be voted.

  3. Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to zero.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two types of expenditures related to consolidated fund of India. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed and voted in Parliament, whereas expenditure charged upon the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but can’t be voted.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to Re 1.

Q.42. Gram Sabha as provided by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Actis a body comprising of:

(a) All the adult members of the village coming under the Panchayat area

(b) All the registered voters in the area of the Panchayat at the village level.

(c) All graduates of three years standing and residing within the area of Panchayat.

(d) All the elected members in the area of the Panchayat at the village level.

Ans. b

Explanation: Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.

Q.43.In the context of Indian federalism, consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by special majority.

  2. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on state list.

  3. States cannot remove officers of All India Services from their service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of any state by simple majority not with the special majority.
  • Statement 2 is correct – During National Emergency, the Parliament assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.
  • Statement 3 is correct – Officers serves in the administration of the States, are under the control of the central government. State cannot remove these officers from service.

 

Q.44. With reference to All-India Services, consider the following statements:

  1. UPSC regulates the recruitment and the conditions of service of the persons appointed to these services.

  2. Their salaries and pensions are met by both the state and the centre.

  3. For the addition of new All India Service, a constitutional amendment is required.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The officers of All-India Services are recruited by the central government according to rules prescribed under All-India Services Act of 1951. The constitution states that the parliament can make laws to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of the officers recruited under All-India Services. So All-India Services Act was passed which assigned UPSC to conduct exams for the recruitment in to the services.

Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the All-India Services are recruited by the Centre but their services are placed under various state cadres. But their salaries and pensions are met by the States.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Addition of any new All-India Service does not require amendment of the constitution. The Rajya can pass a resolution declaring it is necessary to create a new All-India Service in the national interest then the parliament can create a new All-India Service. On the same fashion India Forest Service was established as the third All-India Service by the parliament.

Q.45. On which of the following grounds, the constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the Supreme Court?

  1. When it infringes the Fundamental Rights.

  2. When it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it.

  3. When it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:  The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order cn be challenged in the Supreme Court on the following three grounds:

(a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part III),

(b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and

(c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

Q.46. With reference to Special status of Jammu and Kashmir, which of the following cannot be imposed by the President in the state?

  1. National Emergency

  2. Financial Emergency

  3. President’s Rule

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. National Emergency cannot be imposed on the grounds of internal disturbance. On other grounds, national Emergency can be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 2 is correct. Financial Emergency cannot be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 3 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be imposed but only on the failure of constitution of the State, not Indian Constitution.

 

Q.47. Consider the following pairs: Union Territory Name of High Court

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Madras High Court

  2. Lakshadweep Islands: Kerala High Court

  3. Daman and Diu: Gujarat High Court

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court.

Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Daman and diu and Dadra and Nagar

Haveli. Even this HC has jurisdiction over Goa.

Q.48. Consider the following statements with regard to election system in India:

  1. India chose first past the post system because of its cultural, religious and linguistic diersity.

  2. All the members of Rajya Sabha are elected by proportional representation system.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c ) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.  d

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because India chose FPTP because of its simplicity and popularity as at that time large population was illiterate and would not have understood complex proportional representation system. If it was the diversity which was considered, India should have chosen Proportional representation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as there are also nominated members in Rajya sabha.

Q.49. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the financial powers of the President?

  1. Demand for a grants can be introduced only after his prior recommendation.

  2. He certifies any bill as Money bill before being introduced in the Parliament.

  3. He constitutes a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of revenue between the centre and states.

  4. He can make advances out of the contingency fund of India without prior sanction of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. b

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 113(3) states that no Demands for Grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Money bill can be introduced only after prior recommendation of the President. However, Money bill is certified by Lok Sabha Speaker and not by the President.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 280, President constitutes a Finance commission every 5 years to distribute revenue between the Centre and the state.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Contingency fund is at the disposal of the President and no prior approval of the Parliament is required for appropriation from this fund. However no money can be appropriated from the Consolidated Fund of India without prior sanction of the Parliament.

Q.50. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has which of the following powers?

  1. Its judgments and proceedings are recognized as legal precedents and legal references in any court of law.

  2. It has the power to punish for contempt of any court including tribunals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Explanation: As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:

(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

 

(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

 

Q.51. Consider the following statements:

  1. Expenses of Supreme Court including the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

  2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court only if Chief Justice of India has requested to do so.

  3. Parliament cannot discuss the Conduct of the judges even during the impeachment motion is under consideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The expenses like salaries, allowances and pensions of judges and staff as well as all the administrative expenses of SC are charged on Consolidated fund of India (Consolidated fund of States with respect to HC).

Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of SC.

However, parliament can extend the constitutionally guaranteed provisions with respect SC’ jurisdiction.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Except during the impeachment motion under consideration, conduct of judges cannot be discussed in parliament. Otherwise SC will be without checks and balances.

Q.52. Consider the following statements:

  1. In the absence of Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting.

  2. Deputy speaker is responsible to the Speaker.

  3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In the absence of Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker is responsible to the House and is not sub ordinate to the Speaker.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Chairman of Rajya Sabha has a power of casting vote but he do not have the power to vote at first instance.

Q.53. Which of the following circumstances is/are exempted for disqualification under defection?

  1. Merger of the party with another party by 2/3rd members.

  2. Voluntarily giving-up the membership after being elected as the presiding officer.

  3. Split in the party by 1/3rd members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct. If a member goes out of his party as a result of merger of the party with another party, he/she is exempted. A merger takes place when 2/3rd of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.

Statement 2 is Correct. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the house, voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it after he/she ceases to hold that office.

Statement 3 is Incorrect. This provision was deleted by 91st constitutional amendment act and hence the defectors have no more protection on the grounds of splits.

 

Q.54. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ordinance making power of the President?

  1. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session.

  2. Ordinances cannot be introduced to amend tax laws or the Constitution.

  3. Ordinances cannot be promulgated retrospectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State High Courts below it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administartive Tribunals by a notification.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.

Q.55. With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Tribunals are part of the Integrated Judiciary System of India.

  2. Tribunals do not cover the employees of the Public Sector Undertakings

  3. Armed Forces Tribunal is established by the Ministry of Defence.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State High Courts below it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administrative Tribunals by a notification.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.

Here we conclude our article on UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Important Questions. Stay tuned with us for more information on IAS Examination.

Stay connected for more information regarding UPSC IAS Recruitment 2017.

Attempt IAS Prelims Mock Test for FREE!

Put your knowledge to the ultimate test with this 25-minute practice set comprising of 20 questions based on the recent pattern of IAS Prelims Examination.

To excel in IAS Examinations, download the Best IAS Exams Preparation App for free.

Write your comments

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.