UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With Explanation

0
6855
UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With Explanation (All Sets)

UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission conducted the Civil Services Prelims Examination on 3rd June 2018 and we are providing UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With Explanation 2018. We are going to upload UPSC IAS Prelims Answers with explanation which will help candidates to recheck the answers they marked.

Over here, we are providing the Answers With explanation for IAS  Prelims (All Sets). Please go through it thoroughly and compare scores to see where you stand.

 

UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With explanation: Check Now

OnlineTyari has compiled a comprehensive answer list for all the MCQs asked in IAS Prelims 2018.  on 3rd June 2018, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the IAS 2018 examination. Millions of aspirants across the country appeared for the Civil Services Prelims Examination 2018. UPSC IAS Prelims Paper I contains Answers With explanation asked on the following topics:

1) Consider the following statements:

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Single largest opposition party was CPI

Leader of opposition was recognized in 1969

Minimum strength required is 10% of house to be leader of opposition

2) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhabit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Vegetation type in deserts is called “XEROPHYTIC” type of vegetation

3) As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agriculture Households”, consider the following statements:

  1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agriculture households among its rural households.
  2. Out of the total households in the country, a little over 60 percent being to OBCs.
  3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agriculture households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agriculture activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The share of OBC households is about 45%

4) How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

  1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
  2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

CPCB is a statutory organization under Water(Prevention and control of pollution) act 1974

The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green TribunalAct 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases

5) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: 9th schedule is open to judicial review if it violates basic structure of constitution

6) Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:  Merchant discount rate on debit cards is the amount that a merchant has to pay to its service providers when a consumer swipes her card on the merchant’s point-of-sales terminal. It is also applicable for online transactions and QR-based transactions.

7)  What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

  1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
  2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2’

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

NSG member have the right to produce nuclear power equipment

NSG member are not default members to NPT

8) With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act that offers advertisement services in India.
  2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in Indian can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The tax was introduced as part not of an income tax act but a separate financial bill

9) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
  2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
  3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

Explanation: As per N.K. Singh committee report recommendations:
The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down to 60 per cent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for states) as against the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.
As per the article 293 of Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

10) Consider the following statements:

  1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Imports are 60%

Custom duty is imposed in several cases

11)  He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

  1. Aurobindo Ghosh
  2. Bipin Chandra Pal
  3. Lala Lajpat Rai
  4. Motilal Nehru

Answer: (c)

12)  Consider the following statements:

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:  Calcutta High Court ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.
The Aadhaar Act regulations, which are currently in Parliament, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.

13) Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

  1. Aral Sea
  2. Black Sea
  3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 3

Answer: (d)

14) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?

  1. Amnesty International
  2. International Court of Justice
  3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
  4. World Justice Project

Answer: (d)

15) Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?

  1. Indian Banks’ Association
  2. National Securities Depository Limited
  3. National Payments Corporation of India
  4. Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (c)

Explanation: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India(NPCI).

16) Consider the following statements:

  1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if any account-holders fail to repay dues.
  2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : (a)

CAR is decided by RBI based in Basel norms

17) The identity platform ‘Aadhaar‘ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

  1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: First statement is dubious

18) Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

  1. Angola and Zambia
  2. Morocco  Tunisia
  3. Venezuela and Colombia
  4. Yemen and South Sudan

Answer: (d)

19) Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

  1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
  2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
  3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Major recommendations

  • Education department be established in each province
  • Government schools in every district
  • Indians given training in the vernacular languages also

20) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

  1. Committee on Government Assurances
  2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  3. Rules Committee
  4. Business Advisory Committee

Answer (b)

21) Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Answer: (b)

22) Consider the following pairs:

           Tradition State                         State

  1. Chapchar Kut festival                Mizoram
  2. Khonom Parba ballad                Manipur
  3. Thang-Ta dance                         Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Thang Ta is a martial art developed in Manipur by meitei

23) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  2. The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: FSS act became an umbrella act for following older acts

  • Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
  • Fruit Products Order, 1955
  • Meat Food Products Order, 1973
  • Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 194
  • Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
  • Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967
  • Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992

24) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

  1. China
  2. Israel
  3. Iraq
  4. Yemen

Answer: (b)

Explanations: It is a proposed solution for arab Israel conflict

25) With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

  1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
  2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1and 3
  4. 3 only

Answer: (b)

26) India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

  1. ILO
  2. IMF
  3. UNCTAD
  4. WTO

Answer: (d)

27) Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
  2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
  3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Answer: (d)

28) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

  1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanations: BHIM app 1st Device id and mobile no. 2nd  Bank syncing and 3rd is app pin.

29)  Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Nagpur
  4. Pune

Answer: (a)

30) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

  1. Child labour
  2. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change
  3. Regulation of food prices and food security
  4. Gender parity at the workplace

Answer: (a)

31) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer : (c)

32) With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Loksabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajyasabha

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

33) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

(b)The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA

(c)The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Answer: (a)

Explanations: “Additional Protocol” protocol to a safeguards agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements.

34) Consider the following countries :

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. India
  5. Japan
  6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Answer: c

Explanation: Additionally ASEAN has existing free trade agreements with South Korea and New Zealand.

35) With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 3rd statement is subjective to interpretation hence the question can have multiple options

36) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ?

  1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

37) Consider the following pairs :

Towns sometimes mentioned in news                Country

  1. Aleppo                                                             Syria
  2. Kirkuk                                                              Yemen
  3. Mosul                                                               Palestine
  4. Mazar-i-sharif                                                 Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

38) In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

(a)Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(c)Provincial Legislature

(d) Provincial Governors

Answer: (b)

39) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  • Speaker of Assembly vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
    if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
  • if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
  • if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly.

40) Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c) If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: It was by JOHN LOCKE also endorsing Leviathan theory.

41) Consider the following statements :

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

42) The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

(a) Bundi school

(b) Jaipur school

(c) Kangra school

(d) Kishangarh school.

Answer: (d)

Bani Thani is an India miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful.

43) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

(c)An American anti-missile system

(d)  A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Answer: (c)

Explanation: THAAD is an  American anti-ballastic missile system against all but intercontinental missiles

44) With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lor Krishna.
  2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
  3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
  4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c)1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tyagaraja

45) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

  1. Limitation of powers
  2. Equality before law
  3. People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Following are the some principles to define The Rule of Law

  • The law must be accessible and predictable.
  • Questions of legal rights should be resolved by the law and not the exercise of discretion.
  • The law should apply equally to all, except where objective differences justify differentiation.
  • Ministers must act within their powers and not exceed their limits.
  • The law must afford adequate protection of fundamental human rights.

46) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?

(a) The money which is tende ed in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor  is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

(c) The bank money in the form of cheques drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

Answer: (b)

Explanation : It’s the best possible fit as there is no standard definition

47) If a commodity is provided free to the public 1, by the Government, then
(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the. product to the Government.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Option b is also possible

48) Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(c) poverty and unemployme crease.

(d) imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Development includes distribution of resources. So he given phenomenon is economic growth and not development.

49) Consider the following statements :

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

  1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities the people of the country.
  3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
  4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b)2 only

(c)2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Human Capital is an intangible resource meaning skill development and quality assurance of the same

50) Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery

(b) illiteracy

(c) high population density

(d) high capital-outputs ratio

Answer: (d)

Explanation: https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/what-is-capital-output-ratio-what-is-its-significance-in-macroeconomic-management/

51) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

  1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
  2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Santhal mutiny in 1854-55 led to the creation of santhal districts  after partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum

52) Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories

(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

(d) rapid increase in the urban population

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Commercialization of Indian agriculture started post 1813 after the England’s industrial revolution gained pace.

53) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/President%27s_rule

54) Consider the following pairs :

Craft                                                        Heritage of

  1. Puthukkuli shawls                               Tamil Nadu
  2. Sujni embroidery                                 Maharashtra
  3. Uppada Jamdani saris                        Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Sujni Embroidery is of Bihar
Uppada Jamdani Saris is of Andhra Pradesh

55) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ?

  1. Mobile phone operations
  2. Banking operations
  3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Positioning_System

56) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
  2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
  3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/what-is-treasury-bill-tbill

57) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
  2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
  3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Sea floor spreading has proved shifting magnetic poles

When the earth was created there was no oxygen

58) The terms WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets

(b) Cryptocurrency

(c) Cyber attacks

(d) Mini satellites

Answer: (c)

Explanation: All of these are Ransomwares

59) With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?

  1.  Avoiding the monoculture practices
  2.  Adopting minimum tillage
  3.  Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  4.  Using crop residues to cover soil surface
  5.  Adopting spatial and temporal rop sequencing/crop rotations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil’s structure, composition and natural biodiversity. CA has proven potential to improve crop yields, while improving the long-term environmental and financial sustainability of farming.

60) The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

 

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holocene_extinction

61) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

  1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
  2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
  3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Explanation: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.

Some applications of IRNSS are:

  • Terrestrial, Aerial and Marine Navigation
  • Disaster Management
  • Vehicle tracking and fleet management
  • Integration with mobile phones
  • Precise Timing
  • Mapping and Geodetic data capture
  • Terrestrial navigation aid for hikers and travellers
  • Visual and voice navigation for drivers

62) Consider the following phenomena :

  1. Light is affected by gravity.
  2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
  3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity is one of the towering achievements of 20th-century physics. Published in 1916, it explains that what we perceive as the force of gravity in fact arises from the curvature of space and time. Einstein proposed that objects such as the sun and the Earth change this geometry.

63) With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :

  1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
  2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
  3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agric It al University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c)2 and 3

(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanations: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/gm-mustards-a-major-step-forward/article9716120.ece

64) Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes seen in news                    Context /Topic

  1. Belle II experiment                                Artificial Intelligence
  2. Blockchain technology                          Digital/ Cryptocurrency
  3. CRISPR — Cas9                                  Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons (heavy particles containing a bottom quark).
CRISPR – Cas9 is related to biotechnology.

65) Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization” ?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The carbon fertilization effect (CFE) is in principle simple: the larger amount ofcarbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.

66) When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step’ out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about
traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

(a)Border Gateway Protocol

(b) Internet of Things

(c) Internet Protocol

(d) Virtual Private Network

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Internet of Things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, vehicles, home appliances and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators, and connectivity which enables these things to connect and exchange data, creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer-based systems, resulting in efficiency improvements, economic benefits and reduced human intervention.

67) With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :

  1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
  2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Needs clarification

68) The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Answer: (d)

Explanation: British-Indian territory was developed as a source of food stuff and raw material for Britain, which fueled rapid growth in its manufacturing sector, crucial to the emergence of a powerful capitalist economy.

69) Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?

(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Champaran Satyagrahaof 1917, in the Champaran district of BiharIndia during the period of the British Raj, was the first Satyagrahamovement inspired by Mohandas Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. Another important Satyagraha just after this revolt was Kheda Satyagraha.

Champaran Satyagraha was the first to be started, but the word Satyagraha was used for the first time in Anti Rowlatt Act agitation.

Champaran is a district which comes under the state Bihar. Under Colonial era laws, many tenant farmers were forced to grow some indigo on a portion of their land as a condition of their tenancy. 

70) Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, De Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Answer: (d)

Explanations: The HMS was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha)Ashok MehtaR.S. RuikarManiben KaraShibnath BanerjeeR.A. KhedgikarT.S. RamanujamV.S. MathurG.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC. In March 1949, HMS claimed to have 380 affiliated unions with a combined membership of 618 802.

71) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Vaishnavism

(d) Shaivism

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana.

72) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
  2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is “the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble
Whereas Imambara instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls.

73) Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

(C) Jean de Thevenot

(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler. Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense, covered, by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles)

74) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara

(b) Lokesvara

(c) Maitreya

(d) Padmapani

Answer: (c)

Explanation: According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).

75) Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense

(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Answer: (c)

Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subsidiary_alliance

76)Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

  1. Charter Act of 1813
  2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
  3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  • The East India Company began to adopt a dual policy in the sphere of education. It discouraged the prevalent system of oriental education and gave importance to western education and English language.
    • The Charter Act of 1813 adopted a provision to spend one lakh rupees per annum for the spread of education in India.
    • Although there was a prolonged debate pertaining to education during the course of a general discussion on the Act of 1813 in the British Parliament, yet the matter continued to generate debate for the next 20 years. Consequently, not even a single penny out of the allocated funds could be spent on education.
    • The contemporary British scholars were divided into two groups on the issue of development of education in India. One group, called the Orientalists, advocated the promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages. The other group, called the Anglicists, argued the cause of western sciences and literature in the medium of English language.
    • In 1829, after assuming the office of the Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck, emphasized on the medium of English language in Indian education.
    • In the beginning of 1835, the 10 members of the General Committee of Public Instruction were clearly divided into two equal groups.
    • Five members including the Chairman of the committee Lord Macaulay were in favour of adopting English as medium of public instruction whereas the other five were in favour of oriental languages.
    • The stalemate continued till 2 February 1835 when the Chairman of the committee, Lord Macaulay announced his famous Minute advocating the Anglicist point of view.
    • Consequently, despite fierce opposition from all quarters, Bentinck got the resolution passed on 7 March 1835 which declared that henceforth, government funds would be utilized for the promotion of western literature and science through the medium of English language.

77) Which one of the following is an ‘artificial lake‘?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India.

78) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

  1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: http://pmkvyofficial.org/Index.aspx

79) In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha” ?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b)  Hindu Mahasabha

(c)  South Indian Liberal Federation

(d) The Servants of India Society

Answer: (a)

80) Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Arya samaj – 1875

Nil Darpan – 1860

Anandmath – 1882

Satyandranath Tagore clearing ICS – 1863

81) Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ?

  1. Decreased salinity in the river
  2. Pollution of groundwater
  3. Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

82) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :

  1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
  2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
  3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b)  3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

83) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanim to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: (b)

Explanations: The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) has emerged as one of the United Nations Systems’ principal responses to the call at Rio+20 call for the international community to assist interested countries in developing, adopting and implementing inclusive green economy (IGE) policies and strategies.

84) “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

  1. Preparation of confectionery items
  2. Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. Automotive industry
  4. Reconstructive surgeries
  5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d)

Explanations: 3D printing is any of various processes in which material is joined or solidified under computer control to create a three-dimensionalobject,[1] with material being added together (such as liquid molecules or powder grains being fused together). 3D printing is used in both rapid prototyping and additive manufacturing (AM)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Applications_of_3D_printing

85) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
  2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
  3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: India’s only active volcano — the Barren Island volcano — in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is again spewing lava and ash, according to a team of scientists from the Goa-based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO). They chanced upon it as part of an ocean expedition in January. While this may evoke apocalyptic images, scientists who have seen the fulmination say it’s fairly benign.

Along with the rest of the Andaman Islands, it is a part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and lies about 138 km (86 mi) northeast of the territory’s capital, Port Blair.

86) Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Prosopis is native to MexicoSouth America and the Caribbean. It has become established as an invasive weed in AfricaAsiaAustralia and elsewhere. It is a contributing factor to continuing transmission of malaria, especially during dry periods when sugar sources from native plants are largely unavailable to mosquitoes.

87) Consider the following statements :

  1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
  2. More than one—third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
  3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

88) “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Answer: (c)

89) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution                                                     Founder

  1. Sanskrit College at Benaras                William Jones
  2. Calcutta Madarsa                                 Warren Hastings
  3. Fort William Arthur College                  Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanations:

Sanskrit college: Jonathan Duncan
Calcutta madarsa: Warren Hastings
Fort William College: Richard Wellesly

90) Consider the following pairs :

Regions sometimes mentioned in news                                         Country

  1. Catalonia                                                                                  Spain
  2. Crimea                                                                                      Hungary
  3. Mindanao                                                                                  Philippines
  4. Oromia                                                                                      Nigeria

Which of the pairs given, above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

 

Answer: (c)

91) Consider the following events :

  1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
  2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
  3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 4-2-1-3

(d) 3-1-2-4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats. The election led to the formation of first democratically elected communist government in India
The Government of India took control of the Imperial Bank of India in 1955, with Reserve Bank of India taking a 60% stake, renaming it the State Bank of India.
In 1953-Air India was nationalized
On December 19, 1961, Goa officially became part of India

92) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty

93) Consider the following :

  1. Areca nut
  2. Barley
  3. Coffee
  4. Finger millet
  5. Groundnut
  6. Sesamum
  7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

 

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Following crops are covered

1 Paddy

2 Jowar

3 Bajra

4 Maize

5 Ragi

6 Arhar(Tur)

7 Moong

8 Urad Other Crops

9 Cotton

10 Groundnut

11 Sunflower Seed

12 Soyabeen Black

13 Sesamum

14 Nigerseed

15 Wheat

16 Barley

17 Gram

18 Masur (Lentil)

19 Rapeseed/Mustard

20 Safflower

21 Toria

22 Copra

23 De-Husked Coconut

24 Jute

25 Sugarcane

 

94) In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Answer: (a)

95) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements :

  1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between-gslv-and-pslv/article6742299.ece

96) With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. To put the public sector banks order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

97) Consider the following items:

  1. Cereal grains hulled
  2. Chicken eggs cooked
  3. Fish processed and canned
  4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax) ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanations: Following is a list of all items exempt from GST; items and services

https://taxguru.in/goods-and-service-tax/exemptions-gst-complete-list-items-services-exempted-gst.html

98) Consider the following statements :

  1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
  3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change oflicially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baiga.Gram panchayats decide Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable.

99) Consider the following :

  1. Birds
  2. Dust blowing
  3. Rain
  4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanations:

Plant diseases can be infectious (transmitted from plant to plant) or noninfectious. Common plant disorders are caused by deficiencies in plant nutrients, by waterlogged or polluted soil, and by polluted air. Too little (or too much) water or improper nutrition can cause plants to grow poorly. Plants can also be stressed by weather that is too hot or too cold, by too little or too much light, and by heavy winds. Pollution from automobiles and industry, and the excessive application of herbicides (for weed control) can also cause noninfectious plant disorders. 

100) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and‘ directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority‘ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
  3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(lb) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Plant diseases can be infectious (transmitted from plant to plant) or non-infectious. Common plant disorders are caused by deficiencies in plant nutrients, by waterlogged or polluted soil, and by polluted air. Too little (or too much) water or improper nutrition can cause plants to grow poorly. Plants can also be stressed by weather that is too hot or too cold, by too little or too much light, and by heavy winds. Pollution from automobiles and industry, and the excessive application of herbicides (for weed control) can also cause non-infectious plant disorders.

Here we conclude our article on UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answers With explanation 2018. Stay connected for more information regarding UPSC Civil Services Exam Recruitment 2018. To excel in Civil Services Examination, Download the Best IAS Exam Preparation App for free.

Best Exam Preparation App OnlineTyari

Write your comments

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.